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There are two common approaches to proving that two statements are equivalent to one another. One approach is to treat ≡ similarly to =. That is commonly done for propositional logic, for example.
Theorem. ¬(p → q) ≡ p ∧ ¬ q.
Proof.
¬(p → q) | ≡ | ¬(¬p ∨ q) | (by the definition of p → q) |
≡ | ¬(¬p) ∧ ¬ q | (by DeMorgan's law) | |
≡ | p ∧ ¬q | (by the double-negation law) |
But often, it is convenient to break the proof down into two major steps by using the propositional equivalence (p ↔ q) ≡ ((p → q) ∧ (q → p)). The following example uses the definitions from the preceding page. We also need one more definition.
Definition. For integers n and m, where m > 0, n mod m is the remainder when you divide n by m. More precisely, dividing n by m yields a quotient q and a remainder r where
n = qm + rand n mod m is the remainder, r.
0 ≤ r < m
Theorem. The following two statements are equivalent.
(a) x ≡ y (mod m).
(b) x mod m = y mod m.
Proof. We break the proof into two parts.
((a) → (b)). Suppose that
(1) x ≡ y (mod m).By definition, that means
(2) m | (x − y)which in turn means
(3) ∃k(x − y = km)So select an integer c such that
(4) x − y = cmNow take both sides of equation (5) mod m.
(5) x = cm + y (by algebra from (4)
(6) x mod m = (cm + y) mod mBut
(7) (cm + y) mod m = y mod msince adding multiples of m to the dividend cannot change the remainder. Putting (6) and (7) together yields
(8) x mod m = y mod mwhich is just what we are trying to prove.
((b) → (a)). Suppose that
(1) x mod m = y mod m.By division and the definition of the mod operator, there must exist integers q1, r1, q2 and r2 so that
(2) x = q1m + r1By facts (2) and (4),
(3) 0 ≤ r1 < m
(4) y = q2m + r2
(5) 0 ≤ r2 < m
(6) r1 = r2 (restatement of fact (1))
(7) x − y = q1m + r1 − (q2m + r2)But fact (9) tells us that
(8) x − y = (q1 − q2)m + (r1 − r2)
(9) x − y = (q1 − q2)m (by facts (6) and (8))
(10) ∃d(x − y = dm)since d = (q1 − q2) clearly works. But that is equivalent to
(11) x ≡ y (mod m)by the definition of what x ≡ y (mod m) means.
♦